[b]Originally posted by RaspK_FOG
Well, sorry to say that, but bards were always my first characters (they have an aspect in life so very similar to my own!), but both 2e and 3e seem to take something out of them: a bard in 2e would have to be very careful, or he would be one of the most vulnerable persons in play; and sincerely, how could a shield hinder his performance, when a suit of armour or weapon could not? One of those times where mechanic went over flavour and realism...As for 3e? Well, finally balanced out abilities concerning his music, liked the sorcerer-like way of casting spells, but hated the change in alignment! Why any non-lawful? Silly people…
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In 2nd edition, Illusion spells specifically required a lot of elaborate gestures for somantic components - this alone would make the transition to why bards don’t use shields. In 3rd ed a bard can use a shield and wear any type of armor he just suffers the arcane spell failure chance of any arcane caster. A bard just doesn’t start with the applicable feats to use shields or wear anytype of armor, but can pick them up later.
In 2nd ed a bad had to have one aspect of his alignment remain neutral so the change to any non-lawful isn’t that big a jump and the explanation given in the PHB makes sense for it.
Note that in 3rd ed bard spells always require a verbal component which IMO also makes a lot of sense for a music driven spell caster.